qun HoD:
> teH 'oH ! 'a jIQongnISqu' jIghItlhtaHvIS. vIQaghlu'law' 'e' vIHot
> 'a mu'tlheghmeyvam vIlughmoHmeH jIDoy'qu'.
Earlier (in another thread), you wrote: "{jIH,SoH,'oH..} vIHech. vIQaghlu'."
Just curious, why do you seem to think that one says *{vIQaghlu'}
rather than {jIQagh(pu')}? Is this a carry-over from Greek or
something?
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De'vID