[Tlhingan-hol] New Canon - King John Shakespeare
lojmIt tI'wI'nuv
lojmitti7wi7nuv at gmail.com
Wed Mar 21 13:16:37 PDT 2012
There have been a lot of confident pronouncements about how to interpret when you should use {bID} before or after a noun without much in the way of explanation citing any kind of canon or rule from Okrand.
We know that of whole numbers {cha' paH} would be "two gowns", while {paH cha'} would be "gown #2" (another way of saying "the second gown"). So, might {bID paH} refer to half of a gown while {paH bID} might refer to the gown's half? (As in gown #0.5)
That second one would be far-fetched, perhaps, but it would be more meaningful with plurals:
bID paHmey - Half of the gowns
paHmey bID - The half-gowns
I don't feel very solid here, and I don't quite understand why others seem to be more confident. I'm suspecting that Okrand is just sloppy in how he's used {bID} and he hasn't explained what it's supposed to mean, perhaps because he hasn't decided what it is supposed to mean.
pItlh
lojmIt tI'wI'nuv
On Mar 21, 2012, at 3:17 PM, Robyn Stewart wrote:
> At 11:23 '?????' 3/21/2012, De'vID jonpIn wrote:
>> Voragh:
>> > We have two new examples from "TalkNow! Klingon":
>> >
>> > yopwaH bID shorts (pants)
>> > paH bID skirt
>>
>> Mini-skirt: {paHHom bID} or {paH bIDHom} (or neither)?
>
> paH bID tIqHa'. qIvDu' 'angbogh paH bID. Sa'Hut qatchu'be'bogh paH bID. nISbe'bogh paH bID vItuQlaHtaH Do qam DujwIj vIlIghtaHvIS.
>
> - Qov
>
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